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Test your chess: Reitstein problem 192

July 3, 2014

How does white win after:

1…Ra6; 1…Be6; or 1…Qh4 (the move played in the game)?




AJA Cameron v F Murray 1910

 

Solution

1…Ra6
2 Qh3, and if say 2…Rd8 3 Ra6, when 3…ba 4 Bf7+ and mate next move.
 
1…Be6
2 Qh3, when say 2…Rfd8 is a sensible try.

What next isn't especially obvious: 3 Re6? doesn't work, since 3…Qe6 4 Bf7+ Qh6.

Eventually, I saw that white must simply exert more pressure: 3 Bf3+ Kg8 4 Qh6 and the double attack on g7 and e6 wins.

 

1…Qh4

 

A slightly different finish: 2 Rh6+! and mate after 2…gh[] 3 Qg8 mate.

 

 

 

 

From → Chess

One Comment
  1. chessmusings's avatar

    Reblogged this on Chess Musings and commented:
    Great post that is worthy of some study.

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